Moonlight
Life Everlasting
We know that Jesus died for all of our sins in order to save us from our eternal punishment.
However, what about the two sins that cannot be pardoned?
The first is to die without asking Jesus to be your Savior from your sins.
The second is to take the MOB.
These two sins cannot be pardoned because to do either of them is to end your chances of being pardoned (saved) in the first place.
Since these sins cannot be forgiven, why did Jesus die for them, if He did?
You might say that Jesus died even for the sins of those who won't be saved. That's true. Not everyone could be saved if that wasn't.
However, would He then take up the punishment for the sins that cannot be pardoned?
If a person loses their chance for salvation, then the punishment of their sins, including the unpardonable ones, will fall on them.
If a person doesn't ever lose their chance for salvation, (meaning they are saved), then they would never commit the unpardonable sins to be saved from in the first place.
Therefore, it doesn't mean that the punishment still needed to be dealt to Jesus as if the never-saved sinner won't be enduring the punishment, right?
None of these questions are rhetorical, this is just what I'm wondering about.
However, what about the two sins that cannot be pardoned?
The first is to die without asking Jesus to be your Savior from your sins.
The second is to take the MOB.
These two sins cannot be pardoned because to do either of them is to end your chances of being pardoned (saved) in the first place.
Since these sins cannot be forgiven, why did Jesus die for them, if He did?
You might say that Jesus died even for the sins of those who won't be saved. That's true. Not everyone could be saved if that wasn't.
However, would He then take up the punishment for the sins that cannot be pardoned?
If a person loses their chance for salvation, then the punishment of their sins, including the unpardonable ones, will fall on them.
If a person doesn't ever lose their chance for salvation, (meaning they are saved), then they would never commit the unpardonable sins to be saved from in the first place.
Therefore, it doesn't mean that the punishment still needed to be dealt to Jesus as if the never-saved sinner won't be enduring the punishment, right?
None of these questions are rhetorical, this is just what I'm wondering about.