twerpv
Well-Known Member
This bible verse is often mis-quoted by so many. 'They' will say "money is the root of all evil". We know that the Bible actually reads that the "LOVE" of money....
However, now to my question/observation. I have seen may Bible versions of this and two stand out.
King James = "For the love of money is the root of all evil"
Almost every other Bible = "For the love of money is the root of all kinds of evil"
It seems to me there is a distinction but maybe I am reading more into it. They way I read in my Bible version (NIV), is that while the love of money is the root of many many evils, it is not the root of ALL evil. However, the way I read the KJV, it reads that the love of money is the root of ALL evil.
So is there a distinction? And which is correct? BTW, I am not looking to start an argument on the 'best' version....
However, now to my question/observation. I have seen may Bible versions of this and two stand out.
King James = "For the love of money is the root of all evil"
Almost every other Bible = "For the love of money is the root of all kinds of evil"
It seems to me there is a distinction but maybe I am reading more into it. They way I read in my Bible version (NIV), is that while the love of money is the root of many many evils, it is not the root of ALL evil. However, the way I read the KJV, it reads that the love of money is the root of ALL evil.
So is there a distinction? And which is correct? BTW, I am not looking to start an argument on the 'best' version....