1 Timothy 2:15

Hol

Worships Him
I've asked myself that and have listened to several sermons that come up short (or maybe I fail to understand).
 

Almost Heaven

Well-Known Member
Jack Kelley has this to say...

Q
My question has to do with 1 Timothy 2:8-15 and in particular verse 15. As I was reading this morning, I read my wife this passage and she looked a me in amazement and with a resounding “what do you mean saved through childbearing?”.Now I know we are all saved by first believing in Jesus by grace through faith and nothing else. So does this verse have another meaning to being saved?

A
First of all, on its face 1 Tim. 2:15 appears to be a contradiction of everything we know the Bible says about salvation. Therefore, since the Bible can’t contradict itself, our initial understanding has to be incorrect.

It appears the problem was created when English translations began omitting the article “the” before childbearing. Today most English translations don’t have it. But this omission changes the meaning of the passage from “women, like men, will be saved through the birth of the Child if they come to Him in faith,” as I believe Paul originally intended it, to “women will be saved in a different manner than men by having children and behaving correctly.” Such a change puts this one verse in opposition to every other verse in the Bible that deals with salvation, and can not be correct.

I believe Young’s Literal Translation (YLT) has the correct translation of 1 Tim. 2:15.

“and she shall be saved through the child-bearing, if they remain in faith, and love, and sanctification, with sobriety”.

Further more, Paul’s own statement in Gal 3:26-29 indicates that where salvation is concerned there’s no difference between men and women. As for the switch from singular to plural, since Eve was the woman in view in the previous verses, it implies that from the first woman to the last, salvation is by faith in the Child who was born.

Remaining in faith means to rely on their faith alone, with love, sanctification, and sobriety being the proper expressions of gratitude for their salvation, as it is with men.
https://gracethrufaith.com/ask-a-bible-teacher/are-women-saved-through-childbirth/
 

Simon

Member
There has been much discussion and debate over the correct interpretation of this verse. This is what it says in the context:

8 Therefore I desire that the men pray everywhere, lifting up holy hands, without wrath or contentiousness. 9 In like manner also, that women clothe themselves in modest clothing, with decency and self-control, not with braided hair, gold, pearls, or expensive clothing, 10 but with good works, which is proper for women professing godliness. 11 Let a woman learn in silence with all obedience. 12 I do not permit a woman to teach or to usurp authority over a man, but to be silent. 13 For Adam was formed first, then Eve. 14 And Adam was not deceived, but the woman, being deceived, fell into sin. 15 Yet she will be saved in childbearing if they continue in faith, love, and holiness, with self-control. 1 Timothy 2:8-15

Here is the explanation that I find the most convincing.

The overall context is about an encouragement to prayer, right behaviour, godly living and the correct position of men and women in the church. In verses 13 and 14 Paul is writing about the consequences of Eve's sin. We know from Genesis 3:16 that the pain of childbearing was part of the curse:

To the woman He said, “I will greatly multiply your pain in childbirth, and in pain you will bring forth children; your desire will be for your husband, and he will rule over you.” Genesis 3:16

So in the context of Eve's sin, it's clear that the childbearing mentioned in verse 15 relates back to the curse that God gave to the woman in the garden. Having mentioned the reason why women were not to be in authority over a man - Eve's sin - it seems that Paul felt it necessary to clarify the effect of the curse.

Now that women can be saved through faith in Jesus, does the curse still apply?

The curse that God gave in the garden still applies to Eve - as does the ground being cursed for Adam. The work of Jesus on the cross hasn't changed any of that. But Paul seems to be saying that regardless of the curse of childbearing women can still be saved "in faith". The curse of childbearing remains a trial for women, but does not affect their salvation.

So in summary, I understand it to mean "Yet she will be saved [in spite of the curse of] childbearing ..."

What does the Greek say?

15 σωθησεται δε δια της τεκνογονιας εαν μεινωσιν εν πιστει και αγαπη και αγιασμω μετα σωφροσυνης 1 Timothy 2:15

σωθησεται - She will be saved (Strong's 4982)
δε - yet, on the other hand, but, though [expresses weak opposition] (Strong's 1161)
δια - through, on account of, because of, by reason of, for the sake of (Strong's 1223)
της - the
τεκνογονιας - childbearing

So it could be translated:

"She will be saved, even on account of the childbearing, if they abide in faith ..."
 
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borrowedtime

Well-Known Member
There has been much discussion and debate over the correct interpretation of this verse. This is what it says in the context:

8 Therefore I desire that the men pray everywhere, lifting up holy hands, without wrath or contentiousness. 9 In like manner also, that women clothe themselves in modest clothing, with decency and self-control, not with braided hair, gold, pearls, or expensive clothing, 10 but with good works, which is proper for women professing godliness. 11 Let a woman learn in silence with all obedience. 12 I do not permit a woman to teach or to usurp authority over a man, but to be silent. 13 For Adam was formed first, then Eve. 14 And Adam was not deceived, but the woman, being deceived, fell into sin. 15 Yet she will be saved in childbearing if they continue in faith, love, and holiness, with self-control. 1 Timothy 2:8-15

Here is the explanation that I find the most convincing.

The overall context is about an encouragement to prayer, right behaviour, godly living and the correct position of men and women in the church. In verses 13 and 14 Paul is writing about the consequences of Eve's sin. We know from Genesis 3:16 that the pain of childbearing was part of the curse:

To the woman He said, “I will greatly multiply your pain in childbirth, and in pain you will bring forth children; your desire will be for your husband, and he will rule over you.” Genesis 3:16

So in the context of Eve's sin, it's clear that the childbearing mentioned in verse 15 relates back to the curse that God gave to the woman in the garden. Having mentioned the reason why women were not to be in authority over a man - Eve's sin - it seems that Paul felt it necessary to clarify the effect of the curse.

Now that women can be saved through faith in Jesus, does the curse still apply?

The curse that God gave in the garden still applies to Eve - as does the ground being cursed for Adam. The work of Jesus on the cross hasn't changed any of that. But Paul seems to be saying that regardless of the curse of childbearing women can still be saved "in faith". The curse of childbearing remains a trial for women, but does not affect their salvation.

So in summary, I understand it to mean "Yet she will be saved [in spite of the curse of] childbearing ..."

What does the Greek say?

15 σωθησεται δε δια της τεκνογονιας εαν μεινωσιν εν πιστει και αγαπη και αγιασμω μετα σωφροσυνης 2 Timothy 2:15

σωθησεται - She will be saved (Strong's 4982)
δε - yet, on the other hand, but, though [expresses weak opposition] (Strong's 1161)
δια - through, on account of, because of, by reason of, for the sake of (Strong's 1223)
της - the
τεκνογονιας - childbearing

So it could be translated:

"She will be saved, even on account of the childbearing, if they abide in faith ..."

Good stuff Simon! Takes it head on and I feel explains it easily in a Biblical sense!
 

Hol

Worships Him
Good stuff Simon! Takes it head on and I feel explains it easily in a Biblical sense!
Yes, very good Simon, thank you!

While at work today I searched and found an excellent sermon on Blue Letter Bible (searched 1 Tim. 2) by Thabiti Anyabwile.

He has a close parallel track with you Simon, with one very interesting emphasis that I loved. He stressed that the Apostle Paul is reminding us that we are of fallen parents (Adam and Eve), and is helping us with the renewal of our minds as learn to worship. We do not naturally think in terms of men leading in worship who are harboring wrath, but we need to understand how fallen we all are. Likewise, women need to carry themselves in the way pleasing to the Lord / husband and not putting ourselves on a pedestal or drawing excessive attention; so that this chapter is rich in help to remind us of our inner battle between our flesh and spirit.

He develops the finer points about childbirth, and I'd recommend anyone listen to better grasp the chapter.
 

mattfivefour

Well-Known Member
There has been much discussion and debate over the correct interpretation of this verse. This is what it says in the context:

8 Therefore I desire that the men pray everywhere, lifting up holy hands, without wrath or contentiousness. 9 In like manner also, that women clothe themselves in modest clothing, with decency and self-control, not with braided hair, gold, pearls, or expensive clothing, 10 but with good works, which is proper for women professing godliness. 11 Let a woman learn in silence with all obedience. 12 I do not permit a woman to teach or to usurp authority over a man, but to be silent. 13 For Adam was formed first, then Eve. 14 And Adam was not deceived, but the woman, being deceived, fell into sin. 15 Yet she will be saved in childbearing if they continue in faith, love, and holiness, with self-control. 1 Timothy 2:8-15

Here is the explanation that I find the most convincing.

The overall context is about an encouragement to prayer, right behaviour, godly living and the correct position of men and women in the church. In verses 13 and 14 Paul is writing about the consequences of Eve's sin. We know from Genesis 3:16 that the pain of childbearing was part of the curse:

To the woman He said, “I will greatly multiply your pain in childbirth, and in pain you will bring forth children; your desire will be for your husband, and he will rule over you.” Genesis 3:16

So in the context of Eve's sin, it's clear that the childbearing mentioned in verse 15 relates back to the curse that God gave to the woman in the garden. Having mentioned the reason why women were not to be in authority over a man - Eve's sin - it seems that Paul felt it necessary to clarify the effect of the curse.

Now that women can be saved through faith in Jesus, does the curse still apply?

The curse that God gave in the garden still applies to Eve - as does the ground being cursed for Adam. The work of Jesus on the cross hasn't changed any of that. But Paul seems to be saying that regardless of the curse of childbearing women can still be saved "in faith". The curse of childbearing remains a trial for women, but does not affect their salvation.

So in summary, I understand it to mean "Yet she will be saved [in spite of the curse of] childbearing ..."

What does the Greek say?

15 σωθησεται δε δια της τεκνογονιας εαν μεινωσιν εν πιστει και αγαπη και αγιασμω μετα σωφροσυνης 1 Timothy 2:15

σωθησεται - She will be saved (Strong's 4982)
δε - yet, on the other hand, but, though [expresses weak opposition] (Strong's 1161)
δια - through, on account of, because of, by reason of, for the sake of (Strong's 1223)
της - the
τεκνογονιας - childbearing

So it could be translated:

"She will be saved, even on account of the childbearing, if they abide in faith ..."
Interesting.
 
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