twerpv
Well-Known Member
Having a hard time understanding this verse. How are women saved through childbirth?
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There has been much discussion and debate over the correct interpretation of this verse. This is what it says in the context:
8 Therefore I desire that the men pray everywhere, lifting up holy hands, without wrath or contentiousness. 9 In like manner also, that women clothe themselves in modest clothing, with decency and self-control, not with braided hair, gold, pearls, or expensive clothing, 10 but with good works, which is proper for women professing godliness. 11 Let a woman learn in silence with all obedience. 12 I do not permit a woman to teach or to usurp authority over a man, but to be silent. 13 For Adam was formed first, then Eve. 14 And Adam was not deceived, but the woman, being deceived, fell into sin. 15 Yet she will be saved in childbearing if they continue in faith, love, and holiness, with self-control. 1 Timothy 2:8-15
Here is the explanation that I find the most convincing.
The overall context is about an encouragement to prayer, right behaviour, godly living and the correct position of men and women in the church. In verses 13 and 14 Paul is writing about the consequences of Eve's sin. We know from Genesis 3:16 that the pain of childbearing was part of the curse:
To the woman He said, “I will greatly multiply your pain in childbirth, and in pain you will bring forth children; your desire will be for your husband, and he will rule over you.” Genesis 3:16
So in the context of Eve's sin, it's clear that the childbearing mentioned in verse 15 relates back to the curse that God gave to the woman in the garden. Having mentioned the reason why women were not to be in authority over a man - Eve's sin - it seems that Paul felt it necessary to clarify the effect of the curse.
Now that women can be saved through faith in Jesus, does the curse still apply?
The curse that God gave in the garden still applies to Eve - as does the ground being cursed for Adam. The work of Jesus on the cross hasn't changed any of that. But Paul seems to be saying that regardless of the curse of childbearing women can still be saved "in faith". The curse of childbearing remains a trial for women, but does not affect their salvation.
So in summary, I understand it to mean "Yet she will be saved [in spite of the curse of] childbearing ..."
What does the Greek say?
15 σωθησεται δε δια της τεκνογονιας εαν μεινωσιν εν πιστει και αγαπη και αγιασμω μετα σωφροσυνης 2 Timothy 2:15
σωθησεται - She will be saved (Strong's 4982)
δε - yet, on the other hand, but, though [expresses weak opposition] (Strong's 1161)
δια - through, on account of, because of, by reason of, for the sake of (Strong's 1223)
της - the
τεκνογονιας - childbearing
So it could be translated:
"She will be saved, even on account of the childbearing, if they abide in faith ..."
Yes, very good Simon, thank you!Good stuff Simon! Takes it head on and I feel explains it easily in a Biblical sense!
Interesting.There has been much discussion and debate over the correct interpretation of this verse. This is what it says in the context:
8 Therefore I desire that the men pray everywhere, lifting up holy hands, without wrath or contentiousness. 9 In like manner also, that women clothe themselves in modest clothing, with decency and self-control, not with braided hair, gold, pearls, or expensive clothing, 10 but with good works, which is proper for women professing godliness. 11 Let a woman learn in silence with all obedience. 12 I do not permit a woman to teach or to usurp authority over a man, but to be silent. 13 For Adam was formed first, then Eve. 14 And Adam was not deceived, but the woman, being deceived, fell into sin. 15 Yet she will be saved in childbearing if they continue in faith, love, and holiness, with self-control. 1 Timothy 2:8-15
Here is the explanation that I find the most convincing.
The overall context is about an encouragement to prayer, right behaviour, godly living and the correct position of men and women in the church. In verses 13 and 14 Paul is writing about the consequences of Eve's sin. We know from Genesis 3:16 that the pain of childbearing was part of the curse:
To the woman He said, “I will greatly multiply your pain in childbirth, and in pain you will bring forth children; your desire will be for your husband, and he will rule over you.” Genesis 3:16
So in the context of Eve's sin, it's clear that the childbearing mentioned in verse 15 relates back to the curse that God gave to the woman in the garden. Having mentioned the reason why women were not to be in authority over a man - Eve's sin - it seems that Paul felt it necessary to clarify the effect of the curse.
Now that women can be saved through faith in Jesus, does the curse still apply?
The curse that God gave in the garden still applies to Eve - as does the ground being cursed for Adam. The work of Jesus on the cross hasn't changed any of that. But Paul seems to be saying that regardless of the curse of childbearing women can still be saved "in faith". The curse of childbearing remains a trial for women, but does not affect their salvation.
So in summary, I understand it to mean "Yet she will be saved [in spite of the curse of] childbearing ..."
What does the Greek say?
15 σωθησεται δε δια της τεκνογονιας εαν μεινωσιν εν πιστει και αγαπη και αγιασμω μετα σωφροσυνης 1 Timothy 2:15
σωθησεται - She will be saved (Strong's 4982)
δε - yet, on the other hand, but, though [expresses weak opposition] (Strong's 1161)
δια - through, on account of, because of, by reason of, for the sake of (Strong's 1223)
της - the
τεκνογονιας - childbearing
So it could be translated:
"She will be saved, even on account of the childbearing, if they abide in faith ..."