Jonathan
Well-Known Member
Or better yet, does it mean something that I don't think it means, or on the hand it does The Old Testament clearly demands stoning for a very certain crime (don't bother looking for it). just trust me when I say that the process is hideous, repulsive, disgusting and inhumane, And a dictate you would expect from Satan, not God.
Fast forward to Jesus encountering a small mob who wanted to stone a woman for adultery. Gracefully, Jesus entered the picture and starting writing on the sand. One very popular, even prevalent theory, is that Jesus, Son of God, was writing very specific sins committed by those wishing to stone the woman. And as each potential stone thrower saw his own guilt and sinful actions he capitulated and. At the end, Jesus said something else to the adulteress along the lines of "There is no one else who remains to bear charges again you. Nor shall I"
(PS that isn't just a paraphrase but is poor one).
I went off track totally there but I will bring it home. What is dispensationalism. truly? And, what Biblical sources support it.
Did Jesus violate the old testament or, rather, was He creating the newest dispensation in his acts of mercy towards sinners?
He said "I don't come to remove the OT, but rather, to fulfill it." (again, paraphrasing).
But if all of that is true, is it not a fair assumption that God's morality is, in fact, not eternally consistent?
On the other hand, that scene from the Word of God could be Christ letting us know he is capable of forgiving sins.
In short, what is Dispensationalism, and what biblical sources can back it up?
Fast forward to Jesus encountering a small mob who wanted to stone a woman for adultery. Gracefully, Jesus entered the picture and starting writing on the sand. One very popular, even prevalent theory, is that Jesus, Son of God, was writing very specific sins committed by those wishing to stone the woman. And as each potential stone thrower saw his own guilt and sinful actions he capitulated and. At the end, Jesus said something else to the adulteress along the lines of "There is no one else who remains to bear charges again you. Nor shall I"
(PS that isn't just a paraphrase but is poor one).
I went off track totally there but I will bring it home. What is dispensationalism. truly? And, what Biblical sources support it.
Did Jesus violate the old testament or, rather, was He creating the newest dispensation in his acts of mercy towards sinners?
He said "I don't come to remove the OT, but rather, to fulfill it." (again, paraphrasing).
But if all of that is true, is it not a fair assumption that God's morality is, in fact, not eternally consistent?
On the other hand, that scene from the Word of God could be Christ letting us know he is capable of forgiving sins.
In short, what is Dispensationalism, and what biblical sources can back it up?
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