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Much talk about the 'Easter' holidays, but what does God's word say?

Discussion in 'Bible Study Q & A' started by makememeek, Apr 12, 2012.

  1. makememeek

    makememeek Well-Known Member

    Yes, the KJV mentions the word 'Easter' once.
    But the context (ALWAYS put it in context!) is that it was (and, alas, still is) coincidental with the Passover feast by a day or two...
    King Herod and his Herodian followers (Greek pagans or phony Hebrew worshippers) celebrated a pagan feast during the week of the Passover that is called "Easter" to this very day. The Vatican adopted it.
    King Herod in public partook of Passover so as not to offend the religious Jews. He was a shrewd politician.

    As for the root word for Easter?
    Easter is derived from the Babylonian idol name, Ishtar.
    The same idol was imaged in stone, wood or metal as a women (a 'virgin') holding a baby;
    sound familiar?
    The Ancient Egyptians, Assyrians, Hittites, Greeks, Romans
    all had their version of the same idol.

    Should we celebrate Easter Sunday?
    ANSWER; Celebrate it as Resurrection Sunday, not like Herod and his Herodians who celebrated that "first day of the Jewish week during the days of the Passover feast" as part of their (discreet) Easter pagan worship.
    As for bunnies and eggs?
    Those were part of the Ishtar (Easter) pagan worship.

    As for Good Friday?

    Listen to what Almighty Lord Jesus said:
    Matthew 12:40.

    It should be GOOD THURSDAY!

    The Jewish calendar supports this.
    That Wednesday was the Last Supper.

    It was THREE (daylight hour) days (Thursday, Friday, Saturday)
    (Jewish calendar and days:)
    THREE nights ([1]Thursday sunset to Friday sunrise, [2] Friday sunset to Saturday sunrise, [3] Saturday sunset to Sunday sunrise)

    It all fits. Jesus' words are confirmed again! As they always are.

    BTW, it perfectly fits with the religious Jewish feast days.
  2. mattfivefour

    mattfivefour Well-Known Member

    OK, so what names would you like us to use for the days of the week ... because those are all named after pagan gods, too. And what should we call the months of the year? Those all have pagan names, too. Should we return to the Hebrew calendar?

    I am not trying to be "smart", bro. I am merely pointing out that the etymology of a word is immaterial to how we use it.

    Finally, I see you defend the use of the word Easter in the KJV by the explanation that "the context ... is that it was (and, alas, still is) coincidental with the Passover feast by a day or two". Interesting, but hardly a reason to alter God's Word. ALL manuscripts of the original Greek say μετὰ τὸ πάσχα (after the Passover). Perhaps you can explain what rule of translation or Biblical interpretation gave the KJV translators the right to single-handedly alter "Passover" to "Easter"? Frankly, if we were to take the view that the KJV is the ONLY translation that accurately reflects the word of God, then we would have to assume that God has no problem with referring to the celebration as "Easter".

    Again, I am not trying to be argumentative or "smart". My point is that wrangling over words is ungodly and unproductive of anything except dissension and the separation of the brethren. That is the clear teaching of 2 Timothy 2:14.
  3. Betty

    Betty Well-Known Member

    Christian hurt other Christians at Christmas and Easter over names. When those complaining because Christians celebrate Christmas and Easter are reminded that we still use the calender even though the days of the week have a pagan origin, the person either gets defensive or calls you a weak Christian. What I find interesting is Schools and jobs are not using the word Christmas because they considered it a Christian Holiday but Christians themselves ore belittled for using the term.:idunno:
  4. livin_in_the_Son

    livin_in_the_Son Well-Known Member

    I truly think if a person knows, and understands the whole "point", or significance of what we are celebrating....why quibble over a name? In another thread I actually spoke of a man that refused to acknowledge the word Easter because he didn't celebrate it. BUT, in all reality what he didn't celebrate was the easter bunny, but the significance of the holiday, Jesus' crucifixion, blood sacrificise, the parallels between that and the Old Testament Passover, etc was the same thing.

    It's kinda the same as refusing to celebrate Christmas because Jesus probably wasn't born in December.
  5. OnceWasLost

    OnceWasLost Super Moderator


    This kind of thread is as predictable as the sun coming up tomorrow, or getting wet when you fall out of a boat. I think this thread was generated because I used "Easter" in a thread I started to read the Book of John 12 thru the end in the week between The Triumphal Entry and The Resurrection.
  6. makememeek

    makememeek Well-Known Member

    Just to add, King Herod who beheaded James was not a Jew.
    That King Herod, like his father and fathers before him were
    descendents of the Edomites; Israel's mortal enemies and idolatrous
    You don't have to look far in a religious library or archive to learn
    that the Edomites ALSO worshipped a statue of a woman and a child.
    The Edomite version of Ishtar, Astarte, etc.

    So it's no surprise to read in Acts 12:4 that the word "Easter" is associated with the gentile/heathen king, Herod; and with his gentile (Roman) soldiers and guards.

    But, many years later, when Paul the Apostle, still a Jewish
    practitioner, headed back to Jerusalem, the believing-Gentile writer,
    Luke, does not use the word "Easter" anymore, even though it falls near Passover, since Paul is no gentile idolator nor heathen;
    Luke uses the phrase "days of unleavened bread" to associate
    with that time of year for completed Jews like Paul.
    The "days of unleavened bread" are thus associated with a godly
    believer like the Apostle Paul; whereas " Easter" was associated with the wicked heathen, king Herod.
    Acts 20:6.

    To learn more about the wonderful association and perfect timing
    between the feast of the Passover, the passover lamb, feast of Firstfruits, and my Lord's entry into Jerusalem, His slaying four days later, and His Resurrection, go to Hal Lindsey's Oracle website
    and watch the April 06th video on these topics.
  7. OnceWasLost

    OnceWasLost Super Moderator

    Any thoughts on the rest of post #2 :scratch:
  8. followerofjesus

    followerofjesus Slave of Christ

    What's important is the reason behind the celebration, not the word you use to describe it. In my opinion, dissention amongst his people over frivolous things causes God more pain than whether or not we use the word Easter or Christmas.
  9. SteveJM

    SteveJM Well-Known Member

    My own personal opinion on this is that I usually avoid the term Easter. The days of the week are unavoidable unless we want to call them day one, day two, etc. That of course would raise more than a few eyebrows. With Easter though, my insistence on Resurrection Day vs Easter will do nothing less than provoke others to consider Christ, which is a good thing. If my insistence makes me weak, so be it. I feel that I'm honoring God and the great event of His Son's resurrection by not mingling it with a pagan name. I won't judge those that do, don't judge me because I don't. As far as the KJV, I don't believe in an inspired inerrant translation, but the inerrancy of Scripture in the original writings, and I do believe that God has preserved His word and message for us today. With that said, I do like the KJV along with some other versions.

    P.S. There is some debate as to the origin of the term Easter. One is that it comes from the old Saxon word Oster meaning to rise, another is that it's from a Saxon goddess. That's an interesting study and topic for discussion.
  10. WKUHilltopper

    WKUHilltopper Well-Known Member

    My church used to use the term "Resurrection Sunday" in lieu of Easter. This year, it's been using the term "Easter". But then again, we've been without a full time Pastor for over a year.

    I'm not sure of the significance--if any. Other than I was surprised to see the Easter eggs made in the "kiddie" program showcased in the lobby and see the word on the signage outside the church.
  11. SteveJM

    SteveJM Well-Known Member

    Here's an interesting link in regard to Easter-Was Easter Borrowed from a Pagan Holiday? | Christian History

    This may change my position and be a great topic of discussion at the time of Passover, Resurrection Day, Easter.

    P.S. After reading the attached article, I'm more educated as to the origin of Easter, it being more likely a month or season, rather than a goddess.
  12. WKUHilltopper

    WKUHilltopper Well-Known Member

    Like most of the things invented by the Roman Catholic church it has its basis in paganism. By melting "cultures" they could sell their idea of religion to those more pagan and non-catholic. So join the Catholics! You can still do your "fertility" rite egg dance, consolidate this belief with "Easter eggs" and still be a "dues" paying revenue centered Catholic. But no sweat, as long as you pay them enough, you'll get into "heaven".
  13. mattfivefour

    mattfivefour Well-Known Member

    Well, bro, the rest of post #2 is much of the same cloth as the first part and the OP. For example, to state that "Luke, does not use the word 'Easter' anymore, even though it falls near Passover, since Paul is no gentile idolator nor heathen" is an attempt to mislead the reader because Luke has NEVER used the word "Easter" to our knowledge. If he did before his conversion to Christ we can never know since there is no record of anything he wrote outside of his gospel and the book of Acts. And in those documents he never once uses the word. So we have fallacy number one on which the argument is based.

    Second to then use this lie to say "The 'days of unleavened bread' are thus associated with a godly believer like the Apostle Paul; whereas 'Easter' was associated with the wicked heathen, king Herod" is totally without merit. And not just on the basis of the devious attempt to fool the reader into thinking Luke abandoned the use of the word "Easter"; but also on the basis of a confusion of Herods.

    Herod Agrippa I was the "King Herod who beheaded James" as recorded in Acts 12:4. What does that have to do with Herod Antipater who was the tetrarch when Jesus was crucified? Were Herod Agrippa I a "gentile, heathen king" with whom "the word 'Easter' is associated" it would have no bearing on Herod Antipater. But the fact is that even Agrippa I was both the son of a Jew and the grandson of a Jew. Thus, by law, he was a Jew. Now I have no difficulty believing he was not a practicing Jew because his father, Aristobulus IV, a Judean prince, had sent him to Rome for his advanced education; and there he was raised with the son of the Roman Emperor Tiberius. Thus he likely was heavily inculcated with Roman pagan values.

    But none of that has anything to do with Herod Antipater of crucifixion infamy. This Herod was the son of Herod the Great, and was the ruler of Judea during the life and death of Jesus Christ. Antipater was a Jew. He was raised as a Jew. And we know from ancient historical accounts that he celebrated both Passover and Succoth, traveling to Jerusalem to do so, in accordance with Jewish Law. Thus to state without any warrant that he was "a gentile, heathen king", is to proclaim a lie. So, lie number 2.

    Now, admittedly, the same history that confirms for us his Jewishness also hints he was not a good Jew. Even though he repaired and magnificently expanded the Great Temple to the point it became called Herod's Temple, he probably did so more for the fame it brought him than our of religious fervor. And, because he cooperated with the hated Romans in their subjegation of Judea (did he have any choice?), he was viewed with great hatred by his most religious and nationalistic subjects.

    (For the record, it is quite possible that he planned to attempt an overthrow of the Roman oppression. Certainly that was the charge that was brought against him when it was discovered that he had equipment for an army of 70,000 stashed away. And it prompted Caligula to depose him in 39 AD, and banish him into poverty in Spain, where he died about 4 years later. Caligula then gave the entire realm to the man who became known as Herod Agrippa I, whom we have already discussed.)

    In any case, it is apparent from all of this that the very foundation of the argument advanced by the author is flawed beyond repair. Of course, this does not surprise me since I discovered that the entire argument advanced is taken from a prominent KJV Only site. I have found that poor logic, confused thinking, and even, on occasion, outright intellectual dishonesty, is to be readily found on such sites. (Please do not use that last sentence as a reason to begin another interminable argument on why the KJV is the Only Word of God. I love the KJV. I use the KJV daily. But, as even Spurgeon said, "It was not let down from Heaven on a cord." I stated what I did only from academic observation, not out of any pejorative desire.)

    What amazed me most of all on that site was the argument made there that the KJV translators' decision to alter the received Word of God and change the original word "pasxa" (Hebrew Pesach, English Passover) in all original manuscripts of Acts 12:4 to "Easter" in their translation was good. In fact, they argue that this unwarranted change proves their translation is the only true Word of God! This left me absolutely gob-smacked, as the British would say. I would expect it will most of you, as well. I literally sat here with my mouth hanging open in astonishment when I read that! Ecce audaciam seductores!!!

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