Greetings!
I am going back and forth with a Jehovah's Witness rastafarian woman(I am not quite sure what that means) and I could use some help from someone who is more familiar with the Hebrew/Greek of these passages:
Isaiah 42:8 “I... am the LORD, that is My name;
I will not give My glory to another,
Nor My praise to [a]graven images
Isaiah 48:11 “For My own sake, for My own sake, I will act;
For how can My name be profaned?
And My glory I will not give to another
John 17:5 “So now you, Father, glorify me alongside yourself with the glory that I had alongside you before the world was.”
Now when I look at this I see another reason why Jesus must be God. How can Jesus say that He has glory alongside Jehovah if He is not God? It would have to be a contradiction in Scripture if Jesus was not God.
Well, the response I got back was that it wasn't a contradiction in Scripture but in the translation. I am dumbfounded and don't know where to go from here.
Please help!
Thanks ever so much. =D



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) In proper English it would be: "And now you glorify me, Father, together with yourself with the glory I had with you before the world existed." Check any reputable translation and it will say approximately that very thing. In fact, even the disreputable "New World Translation of the Holy Scriptures" which is the Jehovah's Witnesses own translation translates John 17:5 as "So now you, Father, glorify me alongside yourself with the glory that I had alongside you before the world was." Which is virtually identical to what she says is a mistranslation. So I suppose she might be suggesting that her own JW scriptures are mistranslated?
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God can use any seed sown by any person to bring a soul to Him.


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