Son of Man

[Potter's Clay]

Hello Everyone,

Jesus refers to Himself many times in scripture as the son of man and I must admit that I am not sure what He means by that.

Please help me understand.

[mattfivefour]

I think D.L. Moody's friend and co-worker for Christ, F.B. Meyer, put it so well in his marvelous commentary on the Gospel of John:

He speaks of Himself repeatedly as the Son of Man. Not A Son of Man. Not the Son of A Man. But, as if He were the child, offspring, and representative of the entire human family--the Son of Man (John 3:14). Whilst, therefore, as the Son of God, He was able to know God perfectly, as the Son of Man He was able perfectly to express, unfold, and reveal Him; so that all might understand the deepest thought and being of the ever-blessed One.

[Robert]

It has to do with Jesus being the intermediary between us and God the father. As the Son of man, he represents us to the Father, while as the Son of God, he represents the father to us. He himself said "if you have seen me, you have seen the father."

[Obadiah]

By invoking the title 'son of man' from Daniel 7:13, Jesus identifies Himself with that figure.

[CrossReference]

Hi Everyone!

Don't you find it interesting that Jesus never refers to Himself directly as being Son of God. When He was 12 He said I must be about My Father's business and again later in John He declares His oneness with the Father. However, He never personally used the title Son of God. In fact and to illustrate how selective His wording of Himself was, He said this: "And then shall they see the Son of man coming in the clouds with great power and glory." Mark 13:26 (KJV) Why didn't He use the title Son of God if there was not something more to His being on Earth the first time that was purposed to be accomplished in the 'creature', for the 'creature' and for the Father, something for which only a man, free of sin, could do for which: "God highly exalted him, and gave him a name which is above every name" Philippians 2:9 When you see it it will light your fire. . . guaranteed.



Romans 8:19-21 holds the answer.

Cross Reference

[jesuschangesall]

6For unto us a child is born, unto us a son is given: and the government shall be upon his shoulder: and his name shall be called Wonderful, Counsellor, The mighty God, The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace Isaiah 9 (King James Version)

SON of GOD=a son
SON of MAN= a child

HE IS AMAZING!

[mattfivefour]

Hi Everyone!

Don't you find it interesting that Jesus never refers to Himself directly as being Son of God. When He was 12 He said I must be about My Father's business and again later in John He declares His oneness with the Father. However, He never personally used the title Son of God. In fact and to illustrate how selective His wording of Himself was, He said this: "And then shall they see the Son of man coming in the clouds with great power and glory." Mark 13:26 (KJV) Why didn't He use the title Son of God.

But He did ... not as a title but as a fact of whom He is. For example in Luke 22:70, when the Sanhedrin asked Him if He was the Son of God, He answered ἐγὼ εἰμι. Ego eimi is emphatic in Greek. It means "I, I am." He was claiming to be the Son of God and they understood exactly what He was saying. In Matthew 26:63b-64a, the disciple records it this way: "the high priest answered and said unto him, 'I adjure thee by the living God, that thou tell us whether thou be the Christ, the Son of God.' Jesus saith unto him, 'Thou hast said.'" Now the way the KJV translates it sounds as if Jesus was in effect saying, "You said it, I didn't." but the Greek is clear: σὺ εἶπας. It is a statement of declaration: "You have said it." And the proof that He was saying He was the Son of God is the reaction immediately after He says those words— "Then the high priest rent his clothes, saying, He hath spoken blasphemy; what further need have we of witnesses? behold, now ye have heard his blasphemy." (Matthew 26:65)

The Pharisees repeated this claim of Jesus' for example in Matthew 27:43 "He trusted in God; let him deliver him now, if he will have him: for he said, I am the Son of God."

God Himself called Jesus the Son of God (Matthew 3:17; Luke 9:35; 2 Peter 1:17)

The Demons called Him the Son of God. (Matthew 8:49; Mark 5:7; Luke 4:41)

John the Baptist called Him the Son of God, (John 1:34)

Nathanael called Him the Son of God and Jesus did not correct him. (John 1:49)

From the targums and midrashes we know that the ancient Rabbis believed one of the titles of Messiah was "Son of God".

So God, angels, and men called Jesus the "Son of God" while He was in the flesh and Jesus did not refuse the title but accepted it. Then during His "trial" He clearly says "I, I am" in reply to the question "Are you the Son of God?" Therefore I am at a little loss to understand why you think He never used that term.

I am not trying to be argumentative here, but trying to understand your scriptural basis and your point.

[micah719]

Romans 5:14-19
14 Yet death held sway from Adam to Moses [the Lawgiver], even over those who did not themselves transgress [a positive command] as Adam did. Adam was a type (prefigure) of the One Who was to come [in reverse, the former destructive, the Latter saving].
15 But God's free gift is not at all to be compared to the trespass [His grace is out of all proportion to the fall of man]. For if many died through one man's falling away (his lapse, his offense), much more profusely did God's grace and the free gift [that comes] through the undeserved favor of the one Man Jesus Christ abound and overflow to and for [the benefit of] many.
16 Nor is the free gift at all to be compared to the effect of that one [man's] sin. For the sentence [following the trespass] of one [man] brought condemnation, whereas the free gift [following] many transgressions brings justification (an act of righteousness).
17 For if because of one man's trespass (lapse, offense) death reigned through that one, much more surely will those who receive [God's] overflowing grace (unmerited favor) and the free gift of righteousness [putting them into right standing with Himself] reign as kings in life through the one Man Jesus Christ (the Messiah, the Anointed One).
18 Well then, as one man's trespass [one man's false step and falling away led] to condemnation for all men, so one Man's act of righteousness [leads] to acquittal and right standing with God and life for all men.
19 For just as by one man's disobedience (failing to hear, heedlessness, and carelessness) the many were constituted sinners, so by one Man's obedience the many will be constituted righteous (made acceptable to God, brought into right standing with Him).

I think there is also a significance in the fact that The Lord Jesus Christ of Nazareth, as a descendant of Adam through the flesh, is the Kinsman Redeemer and Avenger of Adam....He is worthy to avenge Adam's death and also redeem his lost dominion. Fast forward to The Lamb that was slain from the foundation of the earth, taking the 7 sealed scroll from the hand of Him on the Throne. John was commanded to stop his bitter weeping, but now I cry in gratitude...

[mattfivefour]

[Robert]

Romans 5:14-19
14 Yet death held sway from Adam to Moses [the Lawgiver], even over those who did not themselves transgress [a positive command] as Adam did. Adam was a type (prefigure) of the One Who was to come [in reverse, the former destructive, the Latter saving].
15 But God's free gift is not at all to be compared to the trespass [His grace is out of all proportion to the fall of man]. For if many died through one man's falling away (his lapse, his offense), much more profusely did God's grace and the free gift [that comes] through the undeserved favor of the one Man Jesus Christ abound and overflow to and for [the benefit of] many.
16 Nor is the free gift at all to be compared to the effect of that one [man's] sin. For the sentence [following the trespass] of one [man] brought condemnation, whereas the free gift [following] many transgressions brings justification (an act of righteousness).
17 For if because of one man's trespass (lapse, offense) death reigned through that one, much more surely will those who receive [God's] overflowing grace (unmerited favor) and the free gift of righteousness [putting them into right standing with Himself] reign as kings in life through the one Man Jesus Christ (the Messiah, the Anointed One).
18 Well then, as one man's trespass [one man's false step and falling away led] to condemnation for all men, so one Man's act of righteousness [leads] to acquittal and right standing with God and life for all men.
19 For just as by one man's disobedience (failing to hear, heedlessness, and carelessness) the many were constituted sinners, so by one Man's obedience the many will be constituted righteous (made acceptable to God, brought into right standing with Him).

I think there is also a significance in the fact that The Lord Jesus Christ of Nazareth, as a descendant of Adam through the flesh, is the Kinsman Redeemer and Avenger of Adam....He is worthy to avenge Adam's death and also redeem his lost dominion. Fast forward to The Lamb that was slain from the foundation of the earth, taking the 7 sealed scroll from the hand of Him on the Throne. John was commanded to stop his bitter weeping, but now I cry in gratitude...

:amen: