Why Was John Baptizing?

[Chris]

Why Was John Baptizing? | GraceThruFaith

Why Was John Baptizing?

Q. I have a question regarding baptism. Why was John the Baptist baptizing people if Jesus had not come and died on the cross yet? When did the practice of baptism begin and what was the purpose? I thank you for all the wisdom you share.

A. The Christian Baptism is an adaptation of the centuries old Jewish Mikvah, which is what John the Baptist was performing. It was (and is) a ritual purification by immersion in water, undertaken before the Sabbath and other Holy Days. It also marked both the beginning and end of significant periods in a person’s spiritual life. John used it to symbolize the beginning of a person’s spiritual preparation to receive the coming Messiah. As Christians we use it to symbolize the new birth after we’ve already received Him. Therefore the purpose of John’s baptism was different from the one that we practice in Christianity.

[myinnuendo999]

This is what I've found and I hope it helps. Acts 19:1 While Apollos was at Corinth, Paul took the road through the interior and arrived at Ephesus. There he found some disciples 2and asked them, "Did you receive the Holy Spirit when you believed?"They answered, "No, we have not even heard that there is a Holy Spirit." 3So Paul asked, "Then what baptism did you receive?"*"John's baptism," they replied. 4Paul said, "John's baptism was a baptism of repentance.

and in John 1:31 John the Baptist said, "I myself did not know him, but "the reason" I came baptizing with water was that HE might be REVEALED to ISRAEL. <<a sign
When Jesus was baptized by John in Matthew 3:15, He identified Himself with John’s message to fulfill ALL righteousness.

[mattfivefour]

Excellent contribution, sis! This truly answers the question in the original.

[myinnuendo999]

Praise the LORD matt, for Excellent is the LORD

[Adopted Son]

[url=http://gracethrufaith.com/ask-a-bible-teacher/why-was-john-baptizing/]Therefore the purpose of John’s baptism was different from the one that we practice in Christianity.

Wow, the precedence of ritual was the segue for the act John performed. He himself told us it was to foretell the new baptism for man, that the coming messiah would wash away all sin forever. He told those he baptized in the Jordan so they would have familiar symbolism to attach to Christ's act of sacrifice.

[dan p]

Why Was John Baptizing? | GraceThruFaith

Why Was John Baptizing?

Q. I have a question regarding baptism. Why was John the Baptist baptizing people if Jesus had not come and died on the cross yet? When did the practice of baptism begin and what was the purpose? I thank you for all the wisdom you share.

A. The Christian Baptism is an adaptation of the centuries old Jewish Mikvah, which is what John the Baptist was performing. It was (and is) a ritual purification by immersion in water, undertaken before the Sabbath and other Holy Days. It also marked both the beginning and end of significant periods in a person’s spiritual life. John used it to symbolize the beginning of a person’s spiritual preparation to receive the coming Messiah. As Christians we use it to symbolize the new birth after we’ve already received Him. Therefore the purpose of John’s baptism was different from the one that we practice in Christianity.

Hi to all , and John 1:31 say Explicity why John was Baptizing .

#1 , It was with water !

#2 , And this Baptism was for Israel only !

#3 , And this Baptism was He ( Jesus ) was to become known to Israel and not to Gentiles !!

#4 , This Baptism was to prepare Israel for the coming Tribulation !

Water Baptism was a cleansing that only applied to Israel and there are 12 different forms of Baptism in the bible !

dan p

[mattfivefour]

Yes, John's baptism was a baptism of repentance to make straight the paths for the Lord Jesus Christ. Messiah was first, by OT prophecy, to come to the Jews and then the Gentiles ... the foundational prophecy of that being Genesis 12:2-3. Isaiah 42:5-9 develops that further. And Isaiah 49:5-6 is the climax of prophecy in that vein. All of it looking forward to Jesus as it lays out His purpose ... the good news is to the Jew first and then to the Gentiles. DSo not mistake this being sequential in the sense that once it went to the Gentiles it was no longer for the Jews. That is wrong and can plainly seen to be wrong from the Book of Acts, let alone the entire NT.

Your final error is in saying that the baptism of John was to prepare Israel for the coming Tribulation. Absolutely not. That it was to prepare Israel for the Messiah in their midst is clear from verses John 1:21-22, 31.

While there are many references to baptism in the NT, and some self-professing teachers like to make much of the fact that there are in their estimation from 7 to 12 (basing this on the number of different references to baptism in the Bible) this is just nonsense for it is easy to see from the Bible that many of these "baptisms" are actually part and parcel of being saved. For example, when we are saved we are baptized into Christ, baptized into His death and His resurrection, baptized into His suffering, etc. However these are all explanations of what it means to "put on Christ". Thus there is (for the sake of this discussion let us leave aside the issue of the Baptism in the Holy Spirit) only one ordinance of baptism in the Church— following salvation, water baptism is a commanded act of obedience for ALL Christians, be they Jew or Gentile.

[Elijah's Mantle]

Help me out with this please I am way confused

I believed from reading John that when John began water baptism that it was not because of some former ritual or anything of the sort that it was because he had a Revelation from God and so therefore water Baptism was not just a cooked up ideal John had , but was what was revealed to him

explain please I don't get this one

[Elijah's Mantle]

when they ask John if he was Elijah, and he said I AM NOT
they were asking after a prophecy where Malachi had predicted
the coming again from heaven of Elijah and when they ask John right after he told them no he was not Elijah they thought to ask ?John again of the Messiah when they ask him
Are you that prophet ? they were speaking of the prophet mentioned by Moses in Deut 18:15 and so again they ask him if he was the Messiah and he answered NO.

when he said he was the voice crying in the wilderness
that is taken and found in Isaiah 40:3

He proclaimed his mission and his identity



gets real interesting if you read on into verses verses 31 and go on to 33

"""AND I Knew Him Not ""vs 31
""and I knew him Not ""vs 33

why did John say that twice ?

""But that ""HE" should be made manifest to ISRAEL

of course we know John knew Jesus

was John making a grand point in fact every one just blazes past with out recognizing something of EXTREME importance


yes I believe so

JOHN said this statement twice for a reason

No one can really know Jesus unless revealed by the Holy Spirit was why John stated "And I knew him not TWICE" as read in both in 31 and in 33

Do you believe the Holy Spirit wants all to know that John's introduction of Jesus as the Messiah was not according to the flesh or the mere fact John knew Jesus in the flesh ???

Thats a VIP question

BUT """HE" who sent me to Baptize with water

water baptism was given to John by the ""HE" who sent and was not an ideal of John's
It was a revelation as the rest of what is read reveals clearly to all .

""The same said unto me upon whom you shall see the spirit descending and remaining on him the same is he which baptizes with the "HOLY" spirit

And I saw and bear record that this is the son of God
John had followed his instructions to the letter and according to the REVELATION he knew without Doubt that JESUS WAS the SON of God

John did not introduce Jesus Christ until the Holy spirit said so
it means at a certian time and Not Before Jesus was to e introduced to Israel as the messiah which John carried out exactly as led by the "He" who revealed just as scripture states

thats my understanding of what is written

[Elijah's Mantle]

Therefore the purpose of John’s baptism was different from the one that we practice in Christianity.

well I reckon so considering that John said ""But there stands one among you who you know not "

""He it is""

John told them truly the Messiah was already in their midst and they knew him not and John stated it was not himself John who was the messiah

when John saw Jesus coming to him the next day as written do you believe it was after the temptation in the wilderness ?

thats another VIP question

were the first two disciples , the disciples of John ? ? ?

"And looking upon Jesus he said "Behold" the lamb of God " !

and the "two" disciples heard him speak
and ....
they... followed Jesus